emilyb

i think you both have valid points, but it was def an annoyed tone. anyway, it was great to hear someone say out loud what so many people are thinking. hahah!

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Emily B

pablote

[quote=eduncan]A few days ago, King Juan Carlos of Spain made news by saying to President Chavez of Venezuela: "¿Por qué no te callas?"


My wife (a native speaker) says that the King’s announcement was a simple declarative statement, therefore it was properly expressed in the indicative mood.

I maintain that it was an expression of frustration and exasperation, therefore it was an expression of emotion, and therefore should be better expressed in the subjunctive.

Indicative!

Just because something is an expression of emotion doesn't mean it requires (or even admits) the subjunctive:

¡Te odio con toda el alma! (indicative, and quite emotional)
¿Por qué no te vas al diablo?
¿Por qué no te callas?

But:
Quiero que te calles.
Te ruego que te calles.
Me gustaría que te callaras.
Ojalá que te calles.
No te calles, que me encanta oírte hablar.