Hi oana, the difference shows in many things: vocabulary, use of voseo, use of certain terms...
No, I believe the grammar is more or less the same, as the rules are the same in Spanish everywhere. With the possible exception of Argentina, as the verb is conjugated in a completely different way. I do not think this would be acceptable in a translation for Spain.
Anyway, wait for our American friends, let's see what their opinion is.
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“Aunque la conducta del marido sea censurable, aunque este se dé a otros amores, la mujer virtuosa debe reverenciarlo como a un dios. Durante la infancia, una mujer debe depender de su padre, al casarse de su marido, si este muere, de sus hijos y si no los tuviera, de su soberano. Una mujer nunca debe gobernarse a sí misma."
Leyes de Manu (Libro Sagrado de la India
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