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eduncan · 11-20-2007, 04:53 PM

A few days ago, King Juan Carlos of Spain made news by saying to President Chavez of Venezuela: "¿Por qué no te callas?"

My wife (a native speaker) says that the King’s announcement was a simple declarative statement, therefore it was properly expressed in the indicative mood.

I maintain that it was an expression of frustration and exasperation, therefore it was an expression of emotion, and therefore should be better expressed in the subjunctive.

Any thoughts?

Thanks

--Eric

11-20-2007, 04:53 PM	#1
eduncan New Member Join Date: Nov 2007 Posts: 3 Rep Power: 0	Should the King use the subjunctive? A few days ago, King Juan Carlos of Spain made news by saying to President Chavez of Venezuela: "¿Por qué no te callas?" My wife (a native speaker) says that the King’s announcement was a simple declarative statement, therefore it was properly expressed in the indicative mood. I maintain that it was an expression of frustration and exasperation, therefore it was an expression of emotion, and therefore should be better expressed in the subjunctive. Any thoughts? Thanks --Eric